My ex and the father of my children wants me to sell the house our children and I live in so I can get him off the mortgage (I have been trying but they won’t accept my sole income). They want to buy a property together which they can’t do while he is still on our mortgage and he claims he and his new partner can’t afford more than a one bed flat for them and her little girl as they can’t use his income incase I default on the mortgage. He also says this is why he can’t have our children to stay. Individually they earn more than me and combined have an extremely good income. I could not afford to rent or buy somewhere else. I wanted to ask is it normal in this sort of situation for an ex to refuse to use there income in the equation and would, if it comes to it, a court accept this? I can afford the mortgage payments, have a stable job and have never missed a rent or mortgage payment in my life. I am not about to start now with two small children to support. I would really appreciate any advice.
I already have a solicitor. I had drawn up a separation agreement that he had agreed to the terms of but then refused to sign as he wants a two year time frame put on it and sadly we may have to go to court as I need to keep our home. I want to know if people usually refuse to use their own income, he is using it to put pressure on me that I am depriving a child of a bedroom. The alternative is not being able to provide a bedroom for my own children.
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